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TOPIC TITLE: What is a disorder?
Created On 5/6/14 1:32 PM
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Cutiestarr
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5/6/14 1:32 PM
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I know this is very theoretical, but twice in my lifetime I had symptoms of a certain disorder for a week's period of time. Symptoms never occurred before or since for many years now. Do I have a "disorder"?
 
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Dr. Price MD
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5/6/14 2:54 PM
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Possibly not. Depends on what happened those weeks.

Rabbi Price, M.D.
Www.RabbiMD.com
 
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Cutiestarr
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5/6/14 5:29 PM
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Sorry to nitpick but "possibly not" does not give me any information since it could also be "possibly yes". I was just curious about this question. Does "possibly not" mean you don't think so and aren't completely sure?
 
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I'mTrying
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5/6/14 5:43 PM
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cutie starr- that sounds really vague. I can't imagine Dr. Price being able to give a more specific answer based on the info you gave...
 
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Cutiestarr
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5/6/14 8:25 PM
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Thank you so much for your comment, just wanted to clarify! Glad you understand these things well!
 
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Dr. Price MD
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5/6/14 8:31 PM
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Cannot say for certain without more information. Could be yes or no. If it was a week of mania then that would define Bipolar Disorder. If it was an isolated week of depression then that would not define Major Depressive Disorder.

Rabbi Price, M.D.
www.RabbiMD.com
 
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Cutiestarr
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5/7/14 5:34 AM
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Oh ok it was more theoretical. But let's say a person had a week of mania with no other symptoms for 14 years without psychotropic drugs. Would this person still have bipolar?
 
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Dr. Price MD
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5/7/14 9:27 AM
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Unfortunately, according the psychiatric world of diagnosis, yes. Even 1 manic episode defines the condition Bipolar, even though it only happened once and there was no history of depression, unless the mania was caused by some other condition such as the use of a drug like cortisone or another medical problem such as hyperthyroidism. I hope that clarifies.

Rabbi Price, M.D.
www.RabbiMD.com
 
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Cutiestarr
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5/7/14 7:47 PM
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Sorry I think my wording was off. I meant, a person who had these symptoms 14 years ago, but has not experienced any relapse or symptoms since and does not take drugs.

In such a case, how did the person not relapse if they truly had bipolar illness?


Edited: 5/7/14 at 7:48 PM by Cutiestarr
 
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Dr. Price MD
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5/7/14 11:03 PM
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Does not make much sense but there are people who have manic episodes only once every 20 years and hence they earn the label Bipolar even after only one episode while maintaining stability despite no prophylactic treatment thereafter.

Rabbi Price, M.D.
www.RabbiMD.com
 
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frumsw
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5/8/14 1:48 PM
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To explain further, if I may, you asked for a definition which is defined by the DSM that a person with a single episode of mania etc. It doesn't mean it makes logical sense. Plus the DSM gets revised every so often. This is the difference between "going by the book" or not.


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frumsw
 
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Cutiestarr
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5/11/14 3:51 PM
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"Earn the label"...wow, so sad.

Thanks.
 
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Dr. Price MD
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5/11/14 4:12 PM
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I agree that it is sad. The new DSM labels even more such that it is rare to find anyone these days who will not qualify for a label at some point in life. Everything is a spectrum disorder nowadays: schizophenia spectrum, bipolar spectrum, autism spectrum, cognitive impairment spectrum. "Normal" is to have a label and "abnormal" is the new norm.

Rabbi Price, M.D.
www.RabbiMD.com
 
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Cutiestarr
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5/12/14 7:09 PM
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curious as to your thoughts about this, but we live in such a different world than 50 years ago; everything is much more fast paced and it seems life is more demanding in general...how do you think this may (or may not) contribute? Or maybe there are other factors?






Edited: 5/12/14 at 7:12 PM by Cutiestarr
 
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Dr. Price MD
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5/13/14 9:05 AM
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Totally agree. Modern living is driving us insane.

Rabbi Price, M.D.
www.RabbiMD.com
 
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